IOM
2068 Kartik
1. Immature proglotids of Taenia solium have:
c) Vitelline follicles and shellgland but not glands
d) Uterus but neither ovaries nor testes
2. Which one of the following insects lays eggs in water:
a) Butter fly b) Dragon fly
c) Sand fly d) House fly
3. First indication of physiological division of labour in frog appears at:
a) Egg stage b) Blastula stage
c) Gastrula stage d) External gill stage of tadpole
4. What is the female counter part of prostate gland in the male:
a) Bartholin’s gland b) Uterus
c) Clitoris d) Graffian follicles
5. What is common in earthworm and man?
a) Ammonotelic b) Urotelic
c) Uricotelic d) Nephrotelic
6. Merkel’s discs and Meissner’s corpuslces are found in the:
a) Skin of frog b) Skin of mammals
c) Skin of toad d) Skin of rabbit
a) Schistosoma b) Paragonimus
c) Dracunculus d) Wucheretia
8. In Paramecium the oral groove leads ventrally and posteriorly as a tubular structure and is called:
a) Blepharoblast b) Water tube
c) Vestibule d) Radial canal
a) Cloaca b) Bidder’s canal
c) Glomerulus d) Collecting duct
10. Peyer’s patches found in small intestine are:
a) Glandular tissues b) Lymphatic tissues
c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissues
11. Resemblances between different organisms with different genotypes due to common adaptation
a) Convergent evolution b) Divergent evolution
c) Retrogressive evolution d) Micro-evolution
12. The number of vertebrae in human body is:
a) 28 b) 30
c) 33 d) 37
13. In mammals, mammary glands are modified form of:
a) Sweat glands b) Sebaceous gland
c) Thymus glands d) Meibomian glands
14. Gemmule formation is the means of reproduction in:
a) Porifera b) Coelenterata
c) Arthropoda d) Annelida
a) Vitamins b) Fats
c) Proteins d) Sugar
a) Nervous system b) Digestive system
c) vascular system d) Reproductive system
17. Movement of earthworm against the soil surface is:
a) Positive geotaxis b) Negative geotaxis
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c) Menotaxis d) Mnemotaxis
a) Paleozoic b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic d) Archeozoic
a) Larynx b) Vein
c) Kidney d) Ureter
20. How many daughter Paramecia are formed in a process of conjugation at a time?
a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
a) Heterodont b) Homodont
c) Pleurodont d) Thecodont
a) Arthropoda b) Annelid
c) Aschelminthes d) Mollusca
23. The endocrine part of the pancreas is known as:
a) Crypts of Leiberkuhn b) Islets of Langerhans
c) Peyer’s patches d) Acini
24. A structure which persists as a useless relic of an ancestral condition is called as:
a) Atavistic b) Vestigial
c) Ontogenetic d) Essential
25. Polymorphism is a characteristic of the phylum:
a) Annelida b) Coelenterata
c) Porifera d) Protozoa
26. In internal ear sensory patches are situated in:
a) Membranous labyrinth b) Cochlea
c) Stapedial plate d) Fenestra ovalis
27. Maximum absorption of nutrients takes place inside:
a) Ileum b) Stomach
c) Colon d) Rectum
28. In rabbit fertilization of ova takes place inside:
a) Uterus b) Vagina
c) Oviducts d) Fallopian tubes
29. Both the alternation of generation and alternation of hosts are present in:
a) Filarial worm b) Tapeworm
c) Round worm d) Liver fluke
30. Zymogen cells of gastric glands secrets:
a) Pepsinogen b) Chymotrypsin
c) Pepsin d) Trypsin
31. Numerous ovules are present in the ovary of the plants belonging to the family:
a) Solanaceae b) Leguminosae
c) Cruciferae d) Compositae
a) Matrix of mitochondria b) Cristae of mitochondria
c) Lysosomes d) Outer wall of mitochondria
33. The neck canal cell in the archegonium of fern is:
a) Uninucleated two celled b) Binucteated two celled
c) Uninucleated one celled d) Binucleated one celled
34. The process of photophosphorylation was discovered by:
a) Priestly b) Warburg
c) Armon d) Calvin
a) Calyx b) Corolla
c) Anther d) Ovary
36. Which of the following is parasitic form of algae?
a) Spirogyra b) Cephaleuros
c) Oedogonium d) Oscillatoria
37. The salt loving bacteria are known as:
a) Methanogens b) Halophiles
c) Thermoacidophils d) Saltophiles
38. The transfer of genes from one chromosome to another during synapsis is termed as:
a) Linkage b) Crossing over
c) Independent assortment d) Dominance
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39. The study of plants related to chemistry is:
a) Pteridology b) Sericulture
c) Biochemistry d) Phytochemistry
a) Binary fission b) Parthenogenesis
c) Sexual reproduction d) Asexual reproduction
a) Anabaena and Azolla b) Fertilizers produced by biotechnology
c) Cow dung, manure and foreyared waste d) Quick growing crops ploughed under soil
a) 1:2:1 b) 9:3:3:1
c) 15:1 d) 12:4:3
43. Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) genes are:
a) Double standard RNA b) Single standard RNA
c) Polyribonucleotides d) Double standard DNA
44. Sexual reproduction is totally absent in:
a) Chlorophyceae b) Phaeophyceae
c) Rhodophyceae d) Myxophyceae
45. Which of the is an example of “living fossil”?
a) Gnetum b) Ginkgo
c) Pinus d) Cryptomeria
46. Oxygen liberated during photosynthesis comes from:
a) Carbon dioxide b) Water
c) Phosphoglyceric acid d) Chlorophyll
47. Which is the main causative factor of desertification?
a) Rural development b) Tourism
c) Overgazing d) Agriculture
48. Which of the following plants has di-morphic chloroplast?
a) Potato b) Sugarcane
c) banyan d) Tomato
49. The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is:
a) Ethylene b) Cytokinin
c) Gibberellins d) Aurcin
a) Nucleoproteins b) Globulins
c) Nucleosides d) Nucleotides
a) Schweitzer reagent b) Etard’s reagent
c) Barfoed’s regent d) Milon’s regent
a) Pure form of carbon b) COCl2
c) Mixture of CO and CO2 d) Mixture of O2 and CO2
b) N2
–
-3
d) N
54. In which one of the following, 1 Faraday of electricity will liberate 1⁄2 gram atom of the metal:
a) AlCl3 b) FeCl3
c) CuSO4 d) NaCl
55. In Darzen’s process for preparation of alkyl halide from alcohol, the reagent used is:
a) HCl gas+ anhydrous ZnCl2 b) HBr(48%) + concentrated H2SO4
c) PX5 d) SOCl2/Pyridine
56. Which of the following is a component of Ruby:
a) CaCO3 b) MgCO3
c) Al2O3 d) Al(OH)3
57. If 4g of sodium hydroxide is added to 500ml semi-normal hydrochloric acid, the pH of solution will be:
a) 0.52 b) 0.72
c) 2.50 d) 9.50
58. In the ideal gas equation PV=nRT, the value of gas constant depend only on:
a) The pressure of the gas b) The volume of the gas
c) The nature of the gas d) the units of measurement
59. What is the normality of NH4OH solution having density of 0.6g/ml containing 34% by weight of
a) 0.1N b) 0.4N
c) 4.2N d) 5.8N
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60. In the electrolysis of CuSO4 solution between Pt-electrodes:
a) O2 is liberated at anode b) H2 is liberated at cathode
c) SO2 is liberated at anode d) Cu++ is discharged at anode
61. When Cl2 gas is passed through hot and conc. NaOH, we get:
a) NaCl only b) NaClO + NaCl
c) NaClO3 + NaCl d) NaClO4 + NaCl
62. How many isomers are possible for a compound having molecular formula of C3H4Cl3?
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) 8
63. The reaction between phenol and CO2 is called:
a) Gattermann’s reaction b) Kolbe’s synthesis
c) Reamer Tiemann reaction d) Schotten Bauman reaction
64. If 4g of NaOH is dissolved in water and volume is made up to 250cc, concentration in g/I will be:
a) 10 b) 12
c) 14 d) 16
65. It is impossible to determine the position as well as momentum of an electron in an atom. This
a) de Broglie’s principle b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
c) Pauli exclusion principle d) Aufbau principle
a) Iodine b) Bromine
c) Magnesium d) Sodium
67. Which of the following is a reducing agent:
a) Sucrose b) Glucose
c) Fructose d) Glycogen
a) Fittig reaction b) Friedel craft’s reaction
c) Coupling reaction d) Diazotization reaction
69. The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2
a) Excited state b) Cat-ionic form
c) An-ionic form d) Ground state
70. Which of the following aromatic compounds is capable of hydrogen-bonding?
a) Toluene b) Phenol
c) Chlorobenzene d) Nitrobenzene
71. The molecule having one unpaired electron is:
a) NO b) CO
c) CN d) O2
72. The initial volume is 400ml at 100C then, find the volume at 0C:
a) 263ml b) 293ml
c) 307ml d) 363ml
73. Which of the compound is most reactive towards electrophile:
a) Toulene b) Phenol
c) Nitrobenze d) Benzene
74. In hemolytic fission of Hydrocarbon which is formed:
a) free radicals b) carboanion
c) carbocation d) carbine
75. For spontaneous reaction the value of G
a) Negative b) Positive
c) Zero d) both a & b
76. Ortho and para hydrogen are distinguish by:
a) spin of electron b) spin of proton
c) Atomic number d) spin of nucleus
a) 102 mole/l b) 10-2 mole/l
c) 1 mole/l d) 10 mole/l
78. Propyne and propene can be distinguish by:
a) CuSO4 b) Br2/CCl4
c) KMnO4 d) AgNO3/Ammonia
79. If the steel is heated well below red hot and the cooled slowly, the process is called:
a) Tempering b) Hardening
c) Annealing d) Nitriding
80. If the power of bulb is 100w and distance 5m above the table. Find the intensity at the centre of table?
a) 6 b) 4
C6H5CH3 + HCl. The above reaction is:
3s2 3p6
2s2
2p6
3d5
4s1
. This represents:
4
d) 1
4
82. In a charged capacitor the energy resides:
a) On the positive plate b) On both positive and negative plates
c) In the field between the plates d) Around the edge of capacitor plates
83. “Water proofing” agent changes the angle of contact:
a) From obtuse to acute value b) From acute to obtuse value
c) From obtuse to /2 d) From acute to /2
84. The state that has greatest potential energy is:
a) Solid b) Liquid
c) Gas d) Powder
85. When a charged particle enters in strong magnetic field, its kinetic energy:
a) Increases b) Decreases
c) Remains constant d) First increases and becomes constant
86. piece of ice floats in water. What will happen to level of water when the ice melts?
a) remains unchanged b) Increases
c) Decreases d) My increases or decrease
87. The percentage of mass which changes into energy fission is in the order of:
a) 10% b) 1%
c) 0.4% d) 0.1%
88. When the absolute temperature of a gas is increased three times, the root mean square velocity of
a) 3 times b) 9 times
c) 1/3 times d) 3 times
89. Two thin lenses of focal length f1 and f2 are placed at a distance ‘d’ between them. For the power of
combination to be zero the separation ‘d’ is:
a) f1 – f2 b) f1 + f2
c) f1/f2 d) (f1/f2)
90. There are four articles having colors blue, red, black and white. When they are heated together and
allowed to cool, which article will cool at the earliest?
a) Blue b) Red
c) Black d) White
91. In Young’s double slit experiment, 12 fringes are obtained in a certain fragment of the screen when
light of wavelength 600 nm is used. If the wave length of light is changed to 400nm, number of fringes
obtained in the same segment of the screen will be:
a) 12 b) 24
c) 18 d) 30
92. When the diameter of a nichrome wire is reduced to half, the resistance changed by:
a) 2 b) 4
c) 8 d) 16
a) Gravity b) Lack of energy
c) Air friction d) its mass
94. ‘n’ number of identical cells in series grouping all in same order have a total emf of 15V. When any
one cell is reversed the emf becomes 12V. the number ‘n’ will be:
a) 15 b) 12
c) 10 d) 8
95. The angular momentum of the electron in the second orbit of the ‘H; atom is:
a) h/2m b) h/2
c) 2h/ d) h/
96. Two masses ‘m’ and ‘4m’ are moving with equal kinetic energies, the ratio of magnitudes of their
a) 4:1 b) 1:2
c) 2 :1 d) 6 :1
97. Which of the following unit of Young’s modulus is in MKS system:
a) N/m b) N/m2
c) N × m d) N × m2
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98. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height of 3cm. If the tube is inclined to the liquid surface at 30
angle, the liquid will rise into the tube up to:
a) 6cm b) 3cm
c) 1.5cm d) 0.5cm
99. If n object cools from 80C to 70C in one minute in the room at 30C, the time it will take to cool from
a) 2 minutes b) 3 minutes
c) 4 minutes d) 5 minutes
100. In an electronic transition, atom cannot emit:
a) UV radiation b) IR radiation
c) Visible light d) Gamma rays
Ans: 1a, 2b, 3c, 4a, 5b, 6b, 7a, 8c, 9b, 10b, 11a, 12c, 13a, 14a, 15c, 16b, 17a, 18b, 19d, 20c, 21b, 22c,
23b, 24b, 25b, 26a, 27a, 28c, 29d, 30a, 31a, 32b, 33d, 34c, 35d, 36b, 37b, 38b, 39d, 40d, 41a, 42b,
43b, 44d, 45b, 46b, 47c, 48b, 49b, 50d, 51a, 52d, 53c, 54c, 55d, 56c, 57a, 58d, 59d, 60a, 61c, 62b,
63b, 64d, 65b, 66d, 67b, 68b, 69d, 70b, 71a, 72b, 73b, 74a, 75a, 76d, 77b, 78d, 79c, 80c, 81b, 82c,
83b, 84c, 85c, 86a, 87d, 88d, 89b, 90c, 91b, 92d, 93c, 94c, 95b, 96b, 97b, 98a, 99b, 100d