IOM 2010 Nusing Examination Questions
Institute of Medicine (IOM) 2010 1. When NH4Cl is added to NH4OH, its pH: a) Decreases b) ...
Tag: IOM Bsc nursing entrance exam question
Institute of Medicine (IOM) 2010
1. When NH4Cl is added to NH4OH, its pH:
a) Decreases b) Increases
c) Remains unchanged d) Zero
2. The number of molecules of CaCO3, which remains if 1 mole of CaCO3 is allowed to react with 1 mole of HCl are:
a) 1.2 x 1024 b) 6 x 1024 c) 6.02 x 1023 d) 3.01 x 1023
3. 60 gram of a compound on analysis produced 24 gm carbon, 4 gm hydrogen and 32 gm oxygen. The empirical formula of compound is
a) CH2O2 b) CH2O c) CH4O d) C2H4O2
4. Oxone which is used to bleach delicate fibre is a mixture of:
a) Na2O2 and diluted HCl
b) Mixture of Na2CO3, NaHCO3 and H2O2
c) Mixture of H2O2 and NaHCO3
d) Mixture of H2O2 and Na2O2
5. In the reaction,
[KMnO4(aq) + H2SO4(aq) à MnSO4(aq) + K2SO4(aq) + H2O (l) + O3(g)], Mn is:
a) Oxidized
b) Reduced
c) Nothing happened as it is present in product side also
d) No change in oxidation state
6. Both phenol and ethyl alcohol contain – OH group but phenol is much acidic than ethyl alcohol due to the:
a) Inductive effect b) Resonance effect
c) Mesomeric effect d) Electromeric effect
7. When Ethyl alcohol is heated with excess of concentrated Sulphuric acid at about 160-170ºC, it produces:
a) Ethane b) Ethyl ether
c) Ethyne d) Ethene
8. Calomel is:
a) Ferrous sulphate b Mercurous chloride
c) Ferric chloride d) Zinc sulphate
9. How many moles of CO2 are present in 220 mg?
a) 5moles b) 0.005 moles
c) 0.05 mole d) 0.5 moles
10. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent in the presence of?
a) Dry air b) Moisture
c) Sunlight d) Pure oxygen
11. Nature of bond formed when two elements react depends upon:
a) Ionisation potential b) Electronegativity
c) Electron affinity d) Oxidation potential
12. Aqueous solution of SO2 reacts with H2S to precipitate sulphur. Here SO2 acts as:
a) Acid b) Reducing agent
c) Oxidising agent d) Dehydrating agent
13. The reaction at cathode during the electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl is:
a) 2H+ + 2e- à H2 b) 2Cl- à Cl2 + 2c-
c) Na+ + e- à Na d) 2H2O + 2e à H2 + 2OH-
14. If the rate of reaction becomes twice for every 10ºC rise in temperature, by what factor the rate of reaction increases when temperature is increased from 25ºC to 75ºC?
a) 10 b) 16 c) 32 d) 64
15. Rusting of iron in moist air involves:
a) Loss of electrons by Fe b) Gain of electrons by Fe
c) Dehydration of Fe d) Hydration of Fe
16. CHCl is stored in dark coloared bottles, because:
a) It is an aesthetic
b) In light it is oxidized to CCl4
c) In light it is oxidesed to COCl2
d) In light it is reduced to CH2 Cl2
17. Liquor poisoning is due to the presence of:
a) Carbonic acid b) Ethyl alcohol
c) Methyl alcohol d) Bad compound
18. A sample of water from a well in Terai contains 0.1 gm Arsenic per litre. What is the concentration of Arsenic in ppm?
a) 1 ppm b) 10 ppm c) 100 ppm d) 1000 ppm
19. When two atoms of hydrogen combine to form a molecule of hydrogen gas. The energy of the molecule is:
a) Higher than that of the separate atoms
b) Equal to that of the separate atoms
c) Lower than that of the separate atoms
d) Sometimes lower and sometimes higher
20. Dehydration of ethanol yields:
a) Mixture of ethylene and ethoxyethane
b) Ethylene
c) Ethoxy ethane
d) Ethyne
21. The atomic number of Nitrogen is 7 and the atomic number of Oxygen is 8. The total number of electrons in a Nitrate ion (NO3-1)is:
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 32
22. When C2H5OH is treated with acidic K2Cr2O7, it forms CH3CHO. It an example of:
a) Hydrolysis b) Oxidation
c) Reduction d) Rearrangement
23. According to the equation DG = DH – T DS. Spontaneous reaction will occur when the value of DG will be?
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinitive
24. One kilogram of water contains 4 gm of NaOH. The concentration of the solution is best expressed as:
a) 0.1 molal b) 0.1 molar c) Decinormal d) 0.1 mole
25. Which of the following has highest boiling point:
a) CH3NH2 b) CH3CH3 c) CH3OH d) HCVOH
26. If one mole of methane is converted into products, then which one of the following statement is true?
a) One mole of Oxygen is consumed
b) One mole of Water is formed
c) One mole of Carbon Dioxide is formed
d) One mole of Oxygen is left behind
27. Which one of the following complex compound has an incorrect formula?
a) Diamine Silver Chloride – [Ag(NH3)2]Cl
b)Ferric Ferro Cyanide – Fe4[Fe(CN)6]
c) Azure blue complex of Copper Sulphate – [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
d) Sodium Nitropruside – Na2[Fe(CN)5NO]
28. Which of the followings are Isomers?
a) Propanoic acid and Methyl methanoate
b) Methyl alcohol and Dimethyl ether
c) Acetone and Acetaldehyde
d) Ethyl alcohol and Dimethyl ether
29. A solution of Sodium in liquid Ammonia is blue due to the presence of:
a) Solvated electrons b) Ammonium ions
c) Solvated Sodium ions d) Sodium atoms
30. Which of the following electronic configuration given for some neutral atoms would be expected to have highest second ionization energy IE2?
a) 1S22S2 b) 1S22S22P1 c) 1S22S22P4 d) 1S22S22P3
31. When temperature of gas is increased its viscosity:
a) Remain constant b) Decreases
c) Increases d) First decreases then increases
32. The maximum wavelengths emitted by the sun at the temperatures (in Kelvin) at T1, T2 and T3 are 650 nm, 580 nm and 350 nm respectively. Which one of the following is correct?
a) T1 > T2; T1 > T3 b) T2 > T1 ; T2 > T3
c) T3 > T1 ; T3 > T2 d) T1 = T2 = T3
33. Two ebonite rods A and B of radii 1.5 cm and 2 cm respectively are rubbed together. The result will be:
a) A and B both remain neutral
b) A will be charged positively
c) A will be charged negatively
d) Both A and B will be charged equally with similar charge
34. Power of ionization of a gamma particle is:
a) More than that of an alpha particle
b) More than that of a beta particle
c) Less than those of alpha beta particle and more than those of beta particle
d) Less than both alpha and beta particle
35. Activity of 1.85 x 1012 disintegration per second is nearly equivalent to:
a) 40 curie b) 50 curie c) 30 curie d) 60 curie
36. The specific gravity of sugar is 1.59. Which one is its correct density in S.I. system?
a) 1.59 b) 15.9 c) 159 d) 1590
37. If a base ball player can throw a ball to a maximum distance = d over a ground, what is the maximum vertical height to which he can throw it ? (Assume that the ball has same initial speed in each case).
a) d b) d/2 c) d/4 d) 2d
38. When an elastic material with young's modulus 'Y' is subjected to a stretching stress 'S' the elastic energy stored per unit volume of material is:
a) YS2 b) S2Y/2 c) S2/2Y d) S/2Y
39. Two drops of water having same radius moving in air downwards with constant velocity V. If the drops Coalesced, what will be the new velocity:
a) 21/3v b) 22/3 v c) (22/3 -1) v d) (21/3 – 1) v
40. The radius of hydrogen atom in the ground state is 0.53 Aº. After excitation, it is found that this radius increases to 2.12 Aº. The value of principal quantum number will be:
a) 5 b) 4 c) 3 d) 2
41. What is the value of -40º Fahrenheit in Celsius scale?
a) -104ºC b) -40ºC c) 8ºC d) 20ºC
42. What is the potential drop across an electric hot plate which draws 5 A when its hot resistance is 24W?
a) 120 V b) 130 V c) 140 V d) 150 V
43. A refrigerator has to transfer an average of 263 J of heat per second from – 10ºC to 25ºC. The average power consumed by the refrigerator is:
a) 10 W b) 35 W c) 20 W d) 40W
44. A tube closed at one end containing air when excited produces the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends the fundamental frequency that can be excited is:
a) 1024 Hz b) 512 Hz c) 256 Hz d) 128 Hz
45. The pendulum of clock is made of brass. If the clock keeps correct time at 20ºC, how many seconds per day will it lose at 35ºC:
a) 12.3 secs b) 24.6 secs c) 36.9 secs d) 49.2 secs
46. A body cools down from 65ºC to 60ºC in ….. minutes. It will cool down from 68ºC to 55ºC in:
a) 5 minutes b) Less than 5 minutes
c) More than 5 minutes d) Less than so more than 5 minutes depending on whether its mass is more that or less than 1 kg
47. An object is placed at a distance 'u' from a simple microscope of focal length 'f'. The angular magnification obtained depends:
a) On 'f' but not on 'u' b) On 'u' but not on 'f'
c) On 'f' as well as 'u' d) Neither on 'f' nor on 'u'
48. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles:
a) The charge on the capacitor increases
b) The voltage across the plate increases
c) The capacitance increases
d) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases
49. A thin stream of water from a tap is attracted by placing a rod near it. The rod is:
a) The south pole of the magnet b) The north pole of the magnet
c) Charged with static electricity d) Any non-magnetic substance
50. If the current in an electric bulb drops by 2%, the power decreases by:
a) 1% b) 2% c) 4% d) 16%
51. Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium is found in:
a) Trachea b) Mouth cavity
c) Lining of blood vessel d) Epidermis
52. Histamine is secreted by:
a) Fibroblast b) Chondroblast
c) Mast cells d) Histocytes
53. Nematocysts in hydra paralyse preys by secreting a poisonous substance called:
a) Heparin b) Histamine
c) Hypnotoxin d) Neurotoxin
54. Glucagon is a hormone secreted from:
a) Pineal body b) Liver
c) Pancreas d) Pituitary body
55. Elongated muzzle and backwardly inverted spines in the Porcupine are the characteristics of:
a) Aquatic adaptation b) Volant adaptation
c) Amphibious adaptation d) Fossorial adaptation
56. Skeleton and muscles in a vertebrate embryo develop from:
a) Ectoderm and endoderm b) Ectoderm and mesoderm
c) Ectoderm only d) Mesoderm only
57. The most dangerous species of Plasmodium is:
a) Malariae b) Falciparum c) Ovale d) Vivax
58. Graffian follicles are found in:
a) Testis b) Ovary c) Stomach d) Spleen
59. The bone of mammals contains longitudinal Haversian canals, which are connected
a) Bidder's canal b) Inguinal canal
c) Volkmann's canal d) Eustachian canal
60. Which of the following animals has a free living mode of feeding of nutrition?
a) Amoeba b) Ancylostoma c) Fasciola d) Planaria
61. Which animal phylum has the characteristic of polymorphism?
a) Annelida b) Coelenterate
c) Porifera d) Protozoa
62. Which class of the Phylum Platyhelminthes has been assigned to Schistostoma?
a) Turbellaria b) Trematoda c) Cestoda d) Digenea
63. Water vascular system is a characteristic feature of the Phylum:
a) Annelida b) Echinodermata c) Mollusca d) Chordata
64. The right auriculo-ventricular aperture in rabbit is guarded by:
a) Bicuspid valve b) Semilunar valve
c) Spiral valve d) Tricuspid valve
65. Rete testis in man is part of:
a) Seminiferous tubules b) Vasa efferentia
c) Epididymis d) Vas deferens
66. Giagantism is caused due to hyper secretion of:
a) Pituitary gland b) Thyroid gland
c) Adrenal gland d) Thymus gland
67. Reflex action is exhibited by:
a) Brain b) Spinal cord
c) Autonomic nervous system d) Peripheral nervous system
68. Which one of the following is an echinoderm?
a) Sea urchin b) Sea lion c) Octopus d) Oyster
69. Syngamy occurs during the formation of:
a) Zygotc b) Gametes c) Spores d) Bud
70. During hibernation and aestivation, the respiration in frog is:
a) Pulmonary b) Branchial
c) Cutaneous d) Buccopharyngeal
71. Serum is:
a) Plasma b) Plasma minus Fibrinogen
c) Plasma minus Calcium ions d) Plasma minus Gamma globulins
72. Carrier of genetic information is
a) ADP b) ATP c) DNA d) tRNA
73. Which of the primate is the closest relative of man?
a) Orangutan b) Pichecanthropus c) Gorilla d) Gibbon
74. 'Dengue Fever' is caused by the bite of:
a) Aedes mosquito b) Culex mosquito
c) Anopheles mosquito d) Cimex
75. The total duration of cardiac cycle is:
a) 0.2 sec b) 0.3 sec c) 0.6 sec d) 0.8 sec
76. Hormone which regulates metamorphosis of tadpole is:
a) Pituitrin b) ACTH c) Thyroxin d) TSH
77. Octopus belongs to:
a) Mollusca b) Mammalia c) Echinodermata d) Coelenterata
78. Blastophore in the vertebrates develops into:
a) Anus b) Mouth
c) Body cavity d) Mouth and anus
79. Anadromous fishes move from:
a) Esturian water to sea b) Sea water to sea water
c) Sea water to fresh water d) Fresh water to sea water
80. Organs of corti cells are related with:
a) Sight b) Hearing c) Body equilibrium d) Taste
81. In a flowering plant when pollen grains of a flower are transferred to the stigma of another flower on the same plant, it is known as:
a) Autogamy b) Geitonomy c) Allogamy d) Xenogamy
82. The element that is not very mobile and remains fixed to mitochondria and chlorophyll is:
a) Potassium b) Sulphur c) Calcium d) Iron
83. The nitrifying bacteria convert:
a) Nitrates to nitrites b) Nitrites to nitrates
c) Nitrites to ammonia d) Ammonia to nitrates
84. Which group of plants assimilates maximum CO2 annually by means of photosynthesis?
a) Angiosperm b) Algae c) Pteridophytes d) Gymosperms
85. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used for:
a) Amino acid synthesis b) DNA amplification
c) Protein synthesis d) DNA synthesis
86. Every carbohydrate is:
a) Ribose and deoxyribose b) Pentose and hexose
c) Triose and tetrose d) Aldose and ketose
87. Totipotency refers to the:
a) Potentiality of a living plant cell to grow into a new plant
b) Potentiality of a living animal cell to grow into a new species
c) Potentiality of higher plants to reproduce asexually
d) Fusion of gametes during sexual reproduction
88. The process of chain elongation of amino acids during protein synthesis is called:
a) Translation b) Transcription c) Proteination d) Putrefaction
89. The bacteria which grow best as aerobes but can grow without oxygen also are:
a) Facultative aerobes b) Facultative anaerobes
c) Obligate aerobes d) Obligate anaerobes
90. The molecular similarities in the structure of DNA, RNA and comparable proteins help:
a) to establish genera
b) to establish species
c) to establish relationship of organism
d) to establish evolutionary significance
91. The sporangia of Fern develop on:
a) roots b) stems c) rhizoids d) leaves
92. Agaricus the edible mushroom belongs to:
a) Oomycetes b) Zygomecetes
c) Ascomycetes d) Basidiomycetes
93. Which of the following is parasitic form of algae?
a) Spirogyra b) Cephaleuros
c) Oedogonium d) Oscillatoria
94. The end product of glycolysis in plant is:
a) Ethanol b) Lactic acid
c) Pyruvic acid d) Acetyl Co-A
95. Viruses have
a) DNA enclosed in protein coat
b) Prokaryotic nucleus
c) DNA enclosed in a nuclear membrane
d) Membrane attached DNA
96. Water rises through the xylem main by
a) Transpiration b) Imbibition
c) Capillarity d) Osmosis
97. Which of the following is used in industrial preparation of ethanol?
a) Nostoc b) Saccharomyces
c) Marchantia d) Azotobacter
98. Lichens represent symbiosis between:
a) Algae and fungi b) Viruses and algae
c) Algae and bacteria d) Viruses and bacteria
99. Viviparous germination can be observed in:
a) Ordinary plants b) Pterydophytus
c) Epiphytus d) Halophytus
100. Which one of the following group of plants is devoid of true nucleus?
a) Bryophytes b) Blue green algae
c) Fungi d) Heridophytes